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Practice conventions-and-laws with 20 free MCQ questions covering environment-and-ecology. Detailed explanations in English and Hindi, perfect for UPSC, SSC, and competitive exam preparation.
Attempt the quiz above first, then review every question with its correct answer and a short explanation below.
Q1.Which Article under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution mandates that the 'State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country'?
Explanation: Article 48A was added to the DPSP of the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. It directs the State to actively safeguard forest resources, wildlife, and improve the overall environment.
Q2.Which Article under the Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution states that 'It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures'?
Explanation: Article 51A(g) is a Fundamental Duty added to Part IV-A of the Constitution of India via the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. It places a civic obligation on every citizen of India to conserve and protect nature.
Q3.Through which Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 were 'Forests' and 'Protection of wild animals and birds' moved from the State List to the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule?
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 moved five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List, including 'Forests' (Entry 17A) and 'Protection of wild animals and birds' (Entry 17B). This allowed both the Central and State governments to pass laws on these subjects.
Q4.Who is the statutory Chairperson of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), which approves project clearances inside National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries in India?
Explanation: The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory board constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, and its clearances are mandatory for any developmental activity inside protected areas.
Q5.Where is the principal bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) located in India?
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal (NGT), established in 2010, has New Delhi as its principal place of sitting (principal bench). It has four regional zonal benches located in Bhopal (Central), Pune (West), Kolkata (East), and Chennai (South).
Q6.The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI), a statutory advisory body established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960, is currently headquartered in which city?
Explanation: The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under the guidance of Rukmini Devi Arundale. Originally headquartered in Chennai, it was shifted to Ballabhgarh in Haryana's Faridabad district in 2018.
Q7.In the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India, the step that determines whether a proposed project requires a detailed EIA study and public consultation based on its size and location is called:
Explanation: Screening is the first stage of the EIA process. It categorizes projects into Category A (mandatory central EIA clearance) or Category B (state-level screening, which determines if a detailed EIA is needed based on guidelines).
Q8.During which stage of the EIA process are the 'Terms of Reference' (ToR) formulated, defining the specific environmental parameters and issues that must be addressed in the detailed study?
Explanation: Scoping is the stage where the Terms of Reference (ToR) are drafted. It identifies key environmental concerns and parameters that need detailed investigation, preventing the study from wasting time on irrelevant impacts.
Q9.Under the EIA Notification 2006, who is responsible for conducting the mandatory 'Public Consultation' stage to gather feedback from local affected populations?
Explanation: The State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) is mandated to conduct the Public Hearing / Public Consultation. It invites comments and holds a public meeting at the project site to record concerns of local affected residents, submitting the report to the clearance authority.
Q10.The final step in the EIA process, where an expert committee detailedly reviews the EIA report, public comments, and responses before recommending environmental clearance or rejection, is called:
Explanation: Appraisal is the final evaluation stage. An Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) at the central level or a State Level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC) scrutinizes the project documents, EIA reports, public hearing minutes, and makes a categorical recommendation for grant of clearance or rejection.
Q11.Which of the following projects in India belongs to 'Category A' under the EIA Notification 2006, requiring mandatory prior environmental clearance from the Central Ministry (MoEFCC)?
Explanation: Category A projects have significant environmental impacts. They require mandatory EIA study and clearances from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) based on recommendations of the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC). Category B projects are cleared at the State level.
Q12.What is the primary role of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in monitoring water pollution in India?
Explanation: The CPCB operates the National Water Quality Monitoring Programme (NWMP) in collaboration with SPCBs. They monitor water quality at thousands of stations across rivers, lakes, canals, and wells to track BOD, dissolved oxygen, coliform levels, and heavy metals.
Q13.Under the NGT Act 2010, the National Green Tribunal must consist of what categories of members to ensure scientifically sound legal judgments?
Explanation: The NGT is a multi-disciplinary body. It includes Judicial Members (who are retired Supreme Court judges or High Court Chief Justices) and Expert Members (who hold PhDs or have vast professional experience in environmental science, ecology, and forestry) to combine law and science.
Q14.The National Green Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor to dispose of environmental applications and appeals within what timeframe of filing?
Explanation: Section 18 of the NGT Act, 2010 mandates that the tribunal shall make an endeavor to dispose of applications or appeals finally within a period of six months from the date of filing of such application or appeal.
Q15.Which of the following is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change responsible for advising the government on forest fire prevention and mapping forest cover in India?
Explanation: The Forest Survey of India (FSI), established in 1981 and headquartered in Dehradun, is responsible for conducting bi-annual forest cover mapping (India State of Forest Report - ISFR) using satellite data, and operates the national forest fire alert system.
Q16.The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 established which statutory body to regulate and set standards for zoos, ensuring proper upkeep and veterinary care of captive wild animals?
Explanation: The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory body established under Chapter IV-A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act. Every zoo in India must obtain recognition from the CZA to operate, and the CPCB/CZA enforces guidelines on animal enclosures and care.
Q17.Under the EIA process, the document that outlines the proposed mitigation measures, monitoring plans, and institutional mechanisms to minimize environmental damage during project construction and operation is called:
Explanation: The Environmental Management Plan (EMP) is a crucial output of the EIA study. It is a site-specific plan detailing how the project developer will implement environmental safeguards, manage emissions, restore disturbed sites, and monitor compliance.
Q18.What is the primary role of the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
Explanation: The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established in 2007 to gather intelligence on illegal wildlife trade, coordinate enforcement actions by police and customs, and build capacity to fight organized poaching.
Q19.Which of the following represents the main function of the 'Expert Appraisal Committee' (EAC) in the EIA approval hierarchy?
Explanation: The EAC does not conduct the study. It is an independent advisory body of scientists and specialists that appraises the EIA report, analyzes public feedback, interviews the project developer, and provides recommendation to the MoEFCC, which makes the final legal decision.
Q20.In the context of Indian environmental governance, what is the role of the State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA)?
Explanation: EIA projects are divided: Category A is appraised by EAC and cleared by MoEFCC. Category B projects are appraised by State Level Expert Appraisal Committees (SEAC) and cleared/rejected by the State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA), decentralizing the clearance workload.
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