Constitutional Amendment MCQ: 42nd Amendment, Anti-Defection Law & 101st GST Amendment

Attempt the quiz above first, then review every question with its correct answer and a short explanation below.

1. Q1.Which case ruled that the power of judicial review is part of the basic structure?

   • A.Minerva Mills Case (1980)✓ Correct Answer
   • B.Golak Nath Case (1967)
   • C.Champakam Dorairajan Case (1951)
   • D.SR Bommai Case (1994)

   Explanation: In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the power of judicial review is an integral part of the basic structure of the constitution.

2. Q2.Which article deals with the 'Amendment of the Constitution'?

   • A.Article 352
   • B.Article 360
   • C.Article 368✓ Correct Answer
   • D.Article 370

   Explanation: Article 368 deals with the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor.

3. Q3.The Supreme Court declared which amendment act as unconstitutional for taking away the power of judicial review?

   • A.42nd Amendment
   • B.99th Amendment✓ Correct Answer
   • C.39th Amendment
   • D.100th Amendment

   Explanation: The 99th Amendment Act (NJAC) was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court as it affected the independence of the judiciary, which is a basic feature.

4. Q4.Under Article 368, the Constitution can be amended by:

   • A.Two methods✓ Correct Answer
   • B.Three methods
   • C.One method
   • D.Four methods

   Explanation: Article 368 provides for two types of amendments: (a) by a special majority of Parliament, and (b) by a special majority of Parliament and ratification by half of the states. (Note: Simple majority amendments are outside the scope of Art 368).

5. Q5.Which of the following amendments provided for the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection?

   • A.42nd Amendment
   • B.44th Amendment
   • C.52nd Amendment✓ Correct Answer
   • D.61st Amendment

   Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for disqualification of members on the ground of defection (Anti-Defection Law) and added the Tenth Schedule.

6. Q6.Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution makes it a blend of rigidity and flexibility?

   • A.Single procedure for all amendments
   • B.Varying procedures for different types of amendments✓ Correct Answer
   • C.Absolute power to Parliament
   • D.Requirement of public referendum

   Explanation: The Constitution provides for three categories of amendments (simple majority, special majority, and special majority with state ratification), creating a balance between rigidity and flexibility.

7. Q7.Amendments related to the 'Supreme Court and High Courts' require:

   • A.Simple Majority
   • B.Special Majority of Parliament
   • C.Special Majority + Ratification by half of states✓ Correct Answer
   • D.Simple Majority + Ratification by half of states

   Explanation: Provisions dealing with the Union Judiciary (Supreme Court) and High Courts in the States affect the federal structure, thus requiring ratification by half of the states.

8. Q8.Who famously described the Indian Constitution's amending process as 'striking a good balance between flexibility and rigidity'?

   • A.B.R. Ambedkar
   • B.K.C. Wheare✓ Correct Answer
   • C.Granville Austin
   • D.Jawaharlal Nehru

   Explanation: K.C. Wheare admired the amendment procedure for striking a good balance, avoiding the faults of extreme rigidity and extreme flexibility.

9. Q9.Which article allows Parliament to create or abolish the Legislative Council in a state by a simple majority?

   • A.Article 368
   • B.Article 169✓ Correct Answer
   • C.Article 356
   • D.Article 249

   Explanation: Under Article 169, Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council by a simple majority if the state assembly passes a resolution to that effect.

10. Q10.Is the amendment of the Fifth Schedule (Administration of Scheduled Areas) considered an amendment under Article 368?

    • A.Yes, always
    • B.No✓ Correct Answer
    • C.Only if states object
    • D.Yes, requires special majority

    Explanation: Amendments to the Fifth Schedule can be done by a simple majority of Parliament and are not deemed to be amendments under Article 368.

11. Q11.Which of the following is a criticism of the amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution?

    • A.It is too flexible
    • B.States cannot initiate amendments✓ Correct Answer
    • C.Parliament has no power
    • D.President has veto power

    Explanation: A major criticism is that the power to initiate an amendment lies solely with the Parliament, and state legislatures cannot initiate amendments (except for Art 169).

12. Q12.The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act relates to:

    • A.Goods and Services Tax (GST)
    • B.National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
    • C.Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh✓ Correct Answer
    • D.Reservation for EWS

    Explanation: The 100th Amendment Act (2015) gave effect to the acquiring of certain territories by India and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh.

13. Q13.To amend the 'Distribution of legislative powers' between the Union and the States (7th Schedule), the required majority is:

    • A.Simple Majority
    • B.Special Majority
    • C.Special Majority + State Ratification✓ Correct Answer
    • D.Absolute Majority

    Explanation: Any change in the 7th Schedule (lists of legislative powers) affects the federal structure and requires ratification by half of the state legislatures.

14. Q14.What happens if there is a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

    • A.Joint sitting is called
    • B.The bill lapses✓ Correct Answer
    • C.President decides
    • D.Prime Minister decides

    Explanation: If there is a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for a joint sitting; the bill effectively lapses/fails to pass.

15. Q15.The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act introduced:

    • A.Anti-Defection Law
    • B.Goods and Services Tax (GST)✓ Correct Answer
    • C.EWS Reservation
    • D.National Commission for Backward Classes

    Explanation: The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India.

16. Q16.Which of the following can be amended by a simple majority?

    • A.Election of President
    • B.Fundamental Rights
    • C.Quorum in Parliament✓ Correct Answer
    • D.Representation of states in Parliament

    Explanation: Quorum in Parliament, rules of procedure in Parliament, etc., can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses.

17. Q17.The power to initiate an amendment to the US Constitution lies with:

    • A.Only Congress
    • B.Only States
    • C.Either Congress or States✓ Correct Answer
    • D.President

    Explanation: In the USA, an amendment can be initiated either by the Congress or by the State legislatures (via a convention). This differs from India where states generally cannot initiate.

18. Q18.Which amendment act gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions?

    • A.73rd Amendment✓ Correct Answer
    • B.74th Amendment
    • C.42nd Amendment
    • D.44th Amendment

    Explanation: The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj institutions.

19. Q19.Who said, 'The amending process has proved itself one of the most skillfully conceived aspects of the Constitution'?

    • A.Granville Austin✓ Correct Answer
    • B.K.C. Wheare
    • C.Ivor Jennings
    • D.B.R. Ambedkar

    Explanation: Granville Austin, in his book 'The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation', praised the amending process.

20. Q20.Does the term 'amendment' in Article 368 include the power to repeal the Constitution?

    • A.Yes
    • B.No✓ Correct Answer
    • C.Implied Yes
    • D.Depending on President

    Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that the power to amend does not include the power to destroy or repeal the Constitution or alter its basic features.